How did Edwards explain the fact that Christ was conceived in the womb of a fallen sinner, and yet was conceived without sin? - Discussion Forum - Artos Academy (BETA)

Christian Learning Center › Forums › Discussion Forum › How did Edwards explain the fact that Christ was conceived in the womb of a fallen sinner, and yet was conceived without sin?

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  • Austin

    Administrator
    10/26/2024 at 20:45

    EDWARDS SAID THAT CHRIST WAS CONCEIVED IN THE WOMB OF ONE FALLEN MANKIND, YET HE WAS CONCEIVED WITHOUT SIN BECAUSE HE WAS CONCEIVED BY THE HOLY GHOST WHICH IS DIVINE LOVE AND HOLINESS ITSELF.

    THAT WHICH IS INFINITE HOLINESS AND LOVE IMMEDIALTELY FORMS, IT IS IMPOSSIBLE THAT IT SHOULD HAVE ANY SIN,

  • Austin

    Administrator
    03/09/2024 at 09:45

    It was the work of the Holy Spirit.

  • Austin

    Administrator
    05/14/2022 at 12:41

    Edwards stated that to be “born of a woman” intimates receiving being in both soul and body “in consequence of a conception in her womb”. He did not believe, as Isaac Watts did, that the soul of Jesus would have existed, or preexisted, a long time before Mary was born. Watts saw Christ was not “deity” and not God but rather a god. Edwards knew that Christ was God – God of the Universe. The triune God. Thus, He did not take on the characteristics of Mary, a sinner, but was born without sin.

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